27,2045 Section 2045 . 50.033 (2m) of the statutes is created to read:
50.033 (2m) Reporting. Every 24 months, on a schedule determined by the department, a licensed adult family home shall submit a biennial report in the form and containing the information that the department requires, including payment of the fee required under sub. (2). If a complete biennial report is not timely filed, the department shall issue a warning to the licensee. The department may revoke the license for failure to timely and completely report within 60 days after the report date established under the schedule determined by the department.
27,2046 Section 2046 . 50.033 (4) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.033 (4) License revocation. The license of a licensed adult family home may be revoked because of the substantial and intentional violation of this section or of rules promulgated by the department under s. 50.02 (2) (am) 2. or because of failure to meet the minimum requirements for licensure. The operator of the licensed adult family home shall be given written notice of any revocation and the grounds for the revocation. Any adult family home licensure applicant or operator of a licensed adult family home may, if aggrieved by the failure to issue or renew the license or by revocation, appeal under the procedures specified by the department by rule under s. 50.02 (2) (am) 2.
27,2046m Section 2046m. 50.034 (3) (e) of the statutes is created to read:
50.034 (3) (e) Post in a conspicuous location in each wing or unit and on each floor of the residential care apartment complex a notice, provided by the board on aging and long-term care, of the name, address and telephone number of the long-term care ombudsman program under s. 16.009 (2) (b).
27,2048 Section 2048 . 50.035 (8) of the statutes is created to read:
50.035 (8) Admission of residents in pilot areas. No community-based residential facility located in a geographic area in which a pilot project under s. 46.271 (2m) is established may admit an individual as a resident until the individual is assessed or is exempt from or waives assessment under s. 46.271 (2m) (a) 2.
27,2048m Section 2048m. 50.035 (9) of the statutes is created to read:
50.035 (9) Notification to prospective residents of assessment requirement. Every community-based residential facility shall inform all prospective residents of the assessment requirements under ss. 46.27 (7) (cj) 3. and (11) (c) 5n. and 46.277 (3) (d) 1n. for the receipt of funds under those sections.
27,2049 Section 2049 . 50.037 (2) (a) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.037 (2) (a) The biennial fee for a community-based residential facility is $170, plus an annual a biennial fee of $22 per resident, based on the number of residents that the facility is licensed to serve.
27,2050 Section 2050 . 50.037 (2) (b) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.037 (2) (b) Such fees Fees specified under par. (a) shall be paid to the department by the community-based residential facility before the department may issue a license under s. 50.03 (4) (a) 1. b. A licensed community-based residential facility that wishes to renew a license issued under s. 50.03 (4) (a) 1. b. shall pay the fee under par. (a) by the renewal date of the license established by the department. A new newly licensed community-based residential facility shall pay the fee under this subsection no later than 30 days before the opening of the facility.
27,2051 Section 2051 . 50.037 (2) (c) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.037 (2) (c) A community-based residential facility that wishes to renew a license issued under s. 50.03 (4) (a) 1. b. and that fails to submit the biennial fee prior to the renewal date of the license established by the department, or a new community-based residential facility subject to this section that fails to submit the biennial fee by 30 days prior to the opening of the new community-based residential facility, shall pay an additional fee of $10 per day for every day after the deadline that the facility does not pay the fee.
27,2052 Section 2052 . 50.04 (2m) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.04 (2m) Plan of care and assessment required. No nursing home may admit any patient until a physician has completed a plan of care for the patient and the patient is assessed or the patient is exempt from or waives assessment under s. 46.27 (6) (a) or 46.271 (2m) (a) 2. Failure to comply with this subsection is a class “C" violation under sub. (4) (b) 3.
27,2054 Section 2054 . 50.05 (2) (b) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.05 (2) (b) The department has suspended, or revoked or refused to renew the existing license of the facility.
27,2055 Section 2055 . 50.05 (2) (c) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.05 (2) (c) The department has initiated revocation or nonrenewal procedures under s. 50.03 (5) and has determined that the lives, health, safety, or welfare of the residents cannot be adequately assured pending a full hearing on license nonrenewal or revocation.
27,2057 Section 2057 . 50.05 (10) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.05 (10) Contingency fund. If funds collected under subs. (3), (7) and (8) are insufficient to meet the expenses of performing the powers and duties conferred on the receiver by this section, or if there are insufficient funds on hand to meet those expenses, the department may draw from the supplemental fund created under s. 20.435 (1) (6) (dm) to pay the expenses associated with the placement of a monitor, if any, in a nursing home and the receivership of a nursing home. Operating funds collected under this section and not applied to the expenses of the placement of a monitor, if any, and the receivership, except for the amount of a security, if any is required under sub. (14m), shall be used to reimburse the fund for advances made under this section.
27,2059 Section 2059 . 50.05 (15) (d) of the statutes is amended to read:
50.05 (15) (d) The lien provided by this subsection is prior to any lien or other interest which originates subsequent to the filing of a petition for receivership under this section, except for a construction or mechanic's lien arising out of work performed with the express consent of the receiver or a lien under s. 292.31 (8) (i), 292.41 (6) (d) or 292.81.
27,2059d Section 2059d. 50.065 of the statutes is created to read:
50.065 Criminal history and patient abuse record search. (1) In this section:
(b) “Client" means a person who receives services from an entity.
(c) “Entity" means a facility, organization or service that is regulated, licensed or certified by or registered with the department. “Entity" includes a personal care worker agency and a supportive home care service agency. “Entity" does not include any of the following:
1. Licensed or certified child care under ch. 48.
2. Kinship care under s. 48.57 (3m).
3. A person certified as a medical assistance provider, as defined in s. 49.43 (10), who is not otherwise regulated, licensed or certified by or registered with the department.
4. An entity, as defined in s. 48.685 (1) (b).
5. Foster homes and treatment foster homes under s. 48.62 that are licensed by the department, a county department under s. 46.215, 46.22 or 46.23 or a child welfare agency.
(d) “Personal care worker agency" has the meaning specified by the department by rule.
(e) “Serious crime" has the meaning specified by the department by rule under sub. (7) (a).
(f) “Supportive home care service agency" has the meaning specified by the department by rule.
(2) (a) Notwithstanding s. 111.335, and except as provided in sub. (5), the department may not license a person to operate an entity or continue the license of a person to operate an entity if the department knows or should have known any of the following:
1. That the person has been convicted of a serious crime.
2. That the person has pending against him or her a charge for a serious crime.
3. That a unit of government or a state agency, as defined in s. 16.61 (2) (d), has made a finding that the person has abused or neglected any client or misappropriated the property of any client.
4. That a determination has been made under s. 48.981 (3) (c) 4. that the person has abused or neglected a child.
5. That, in the case of a position for which the person must be credentialed by the department of regulation and licensing, the person's credential is not current or is limited so as to restrict the person from providing adequate care to a client.
(ag) Notwithstanding s. 111.335, and except as provided in sub. (5), an entity may not hire or contract with a person who will be under the entity's control, as defined by the department by rule, and who is expected to have access to its clients, or permit to reside at the entity a person who is not a client and who is expected to have access to a client, if the entity knows or should have known any of the following:
1. That the person has been convicted of a serious crime.
2. That the person has pending against him or her a charge for a serious crime.
3. That a unit of government or a state agency, as defined in s. 16.61 (2) (d), has made a finding that the person has abused or neglected any client or misappropriated the property of any client.
4. That a determination has been made under s. 48.981 (3) (c) 4. that the person has abused or neglected a child.
5. That, in the case of a position for which the person must be credentialed by the department of regulation and licensing, the person's credential is not current or is limited so as to restrict the person from providing adequate care to a client.
(am) The department shall obtain all of the following with respect to a person specified under par. (a) (intro.):
1. A criminal history search from the records maintained by the department of justice.
2. Information that is contained in the registry under s. 146.40 (4g) regarding any findings against the person.
3. Information maintained by the department of regulation and licensing regarding the status of the person's credentials, if applicable.
4. Information maintained by the department regarding any substantiated reports of child abuse or neglect against the person.
(b) 1. Subject to subds. 2. and 3., every entity shall obtain all of the following with respect to a person specified under par. (ag) (intro.):
a. A criminal history search from the records maintained by the department of justice.
b. Information that is contained in the registry under s. 146.40 (4g) regarding any findings against the person.
c. Information maintained by the department of regulation and licensing regarding the status of the person's credentials, if applicable.
d. Information maintained by the department regarding any substantiated reports of child abuse or neglect against the person.
2. Subdivision 1. does not apply with respect to a person with whom the entity contracts or whom the entity employs to provide infrequent or sporadic services, including maintenance services and other services that are not directly related to the care of a client.
3. Subdivision 1. does not apply with respect to a person under 18 years of age whose background information form under sub. (6) (am) indicates that the person is not ineligible to be employed, contracted with or permitted to reside at the entity for a reason specified in par. (ag) 1. to 5. and with respect to whom the entity otherwise has no reason to believe that the person is ineligible to be employed, contracted with or permitted to reside at the entity for any of those reasons.
(bg) If an entity takes an action specified in par. (ag) (intro.) with respect to a person for whom, within the last 4 years, the information required under par. (b) 1. a. to c. has already been obtained, either by another entity or by a temporary employment agency, the entity may obtain the information required under par. (b) 1. a. to c. from that other entity or temporary employment agency, which shall provide the information, if possible, to the entity. If an entity cannot obtain the information required under par. (b) 1. a. to c. from another entity or from a temporary employment agency, the entity shall obtain that information from the sources specified in par. (b) 1. a. to c.
(bm) If the person who is the subject of the search under par. (am) or (b) 1. is not a resident of this state, or if at any time within the 3 years preceding the date of the search that person has not been a resident of this state, the department or entity shall make a good faith effort to obtain from any state in which the person is a resident or was a resident within the 3 years preceding the date of the search information that is equivalent to the information specified in par. (am) 1. or (b) 1. a.
(c) If the background information form completed by a person under sub. (6) (am) indicates that the person is not ineligible to be employed, contracted with or permitted to reside at an entity for a reason specified in par. (ag) 1. to 5., an entity may employ or contract with the person or permit the person to reside at the entity for not more than 60 days pending the receipt of the information sought under par. (b) 1. An entity shall provide supervision for a person who is employed or contracted with or permitted to reside as permitted under this paragraph.
(3) (a) Every 4 years or at any time within that period that the department considers appropriate, the department shall request the information specified in sub. (2) (am) 1. to 4. for all persons who are licensed to operate an entity.
(b) Every 4 years or at any other time within that period that an entity considers appropriate, the entity shall request the information specified in sub. (2) (b) 1. a. to d. for all persons specified in sub. (2) (ag) (intro.).
(3m) Notwithstanding subs. (2) (b) 1. and (3) (b), if the department obtains the information required under sub. (2) (am) or (3) (a) with respect to a person specified in sub. (2) (a) (intro.) and that person is also an employe, contractor or resident of the entity, the entity is not required to obtain the information specified in sub. (2) (b) 1. or (3) (b) with respect to that person.
(4) An entity that violates sub. (2) or (3) may be required to forfeit not more than $1,000 and may be subject to other sanctions specified by the department by rule.
(5) The department may license to operate an entity a person who otherwise may not be licensed for a reason specified in sub. (2) (a) 1. to 5., and an entity may employ, contract with or permit to reside at the entity a person who otherwise may not be employed, contracted with or permitted to reside at the entity for a reason specified in sub. (2) (ag) 1. to 5., if the person demonstrates to the department by clear and convincing evidence and in accordance with procedures established by the department by rule that he or she has been rehabilitated. No person who has been convicted of any of the following offenses may be permitted to demonstrate that he or she has been rehabilitated:
(a) First-degree intentional homicide under s. 940.01.
(b) First degree sexual assault under s. 940.225 (1).
(c) First degree sexual assault of a child under s. 948.02 (1).
(d) Second degree sexual assault of a child under s. 948.02 (2) if the person was, at the time of the sexual contact or sexual intercourse, more than 4 years older than the child with whom the person had the sexual contact or sexual intercourse.
(e) Repeated acts of sexual assault of the same child under s. 948.025 if the child had not attained the age of 13, or if the child had attained the age of 13 and had not attained the age of 16 and the person was, at the time of the sexual contact or sexual intercourse, more than 4 years older than the child with whom the person had the sexual contact or sexual intercourse.
(5c) Any person who is permitted but fails under sub. (5) to demonstrate to the department that he or she has been rehabilitated may appeal to the secretary of health and family services or his or her designee. Any person who is adversely affected by a decision of the secretary or his or her designee under this subsection has a right to a contested case hearing under ch. 227.
(5g) Beginning on the first January 1 after the effective date of this subsection .... [revisor inserts date], and annually thereafter, the department shall submit a report to the legislature under s. 13.172 (2) that specifies the number of persons in the previous year who have requested to demonstrate to the department that they have been rehabilitated under sub. (5), the number of persons who successfully demonstrated that they have been rehabilitated under sub. (5) and the reasons for the success or failure of a person who has attempted to demonstrate that he or she has been rehabilitated.
(5m) Notwithstanding s. 111.335, the department may refuse to license a person to operate an entity, and an entity may refuse to employ, contract with or permit to reside at the entity a person specified in sub. (2) (ag) (intro.), if the person has been convicted of an offense that the department has not defined as a “serious crime" by rule promulgated under sub. (7) (a), or specified in the list established by rule under sub. (7) (b), but that is, in the estimation of the department or entity, substantially related to the care of a client.
(6) (a) The department shall require any person who applies for issuance or continuation of a license to operate an entity to complete a background information form that is provided by the department.
(am) Every 4 years an entity shall require all of the following persons to complete a background information form that is provided to the entity by the department:
1. A person who is an employe, prospective employe, contractor or prospective contractor of the entity, who will be under the entity's control and who has, or is expected to have, access to its clients, other than a person specified in sub. (2) (b) 2.
2. A person who is a resident or prospective resident at the entity and who is not a client or prospective client of the entity, if the person has, or is expected to have, access to any client of the entity.
(b) For persons specified under par. (a) who are regulated, licensed or certified by, or registered with, the department, for person specified in par. (am) 2., and for other persons specified by the department by rule, the entity shall send the background information form to the department. For all other persons specified in par. (a) and for persons specified under par. (am) 1., the entity shall maintain the background information form on file for inspection by the department.
(c) A person who provides false information on a background information form required under this subsection may be required to forfeit not more than $1,000 and may be subject to other sanctions specified by the department by rule.
(7) The department shall do all of the following:
(a) Establish by rule a definition of “serious crime" for the purpose of this section. The definition shall include only crimes or acts that are substantially related to the care of a client and shall include classes of crimes or acts involving abuse or neglect of a client for which no person who has committed any of those crimes or acts may be permitted to demonstrate under sub. (5) that he or she has been rehabilitated. The definition may also include other crimes or acts that do not involve abuse or neglect of a client but that are substantially related to the care of a client for which no person who committed any of those crimes or acts may be permitted to demonstrate under sub. (5) that he or she has been rehabilitated.
(b) Establish by rule a list of crimes or acts that are not included in the definition established under par. (a), that are substantially related to the care of clients and the commission of which warrants a less stringent measure than a bar on employment, residence or similar type of association with an entity. The rule shall be consistent with federal law and regulations and shall include a description of the measures to be taken for the crimes or acts that the department lists under this paragraph.
(c) Conduct throughout the state periodic training sessions that cover criminal background investigations; reporting and investigating misappropriation of property or abuse or neglect of a client; and any other material that will better enable entities to comply with the requirements of this section.
(d) Provide a background information form that requires the person completing the form to include his or her date of birth on the form.
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